Emergency Procedures Exam 1 Practice

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What medications can we give a patient on a scene?
• Which of the following is NOT a baseline vital that can be taken at the scene?
• Pulse oximetry can give a false reading in which group?
• Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in blood pressure after standing for 3 minutes by at least which values?
• Which of the following is NOT an element of abandonment?
• When taking standard precautions in an emergency situation, PPE is used to protect the rescuer from contracting which pathogens?
• Why are clear access routes and exits crucial in emergencies?
• During the initial assessment, which phrase describes the method for forming a general impression?
• Who defines the scope of practice?
• In negligence, the element that connects the breach to the damages is known as
• Under which condition should you not attempt to fight a fire with an extinguisher?
• What important safety information would you document about a patient in an emergency situation?
• What mindset and actions promote a calm, effective emergency response?
• What are the priorities of a primary assessment?
• What are the 3 P's of first aid?
• What is Lockout-Tagout (LOTO) and why is it important?
• Which statement defines Scope of Practice?
• Why is it important to know the location and proper use of an AED?
• If a patient has a palpable radial pulse, what is their baseline diastolic pressure?
• For a chiropractor, in what setting would they have a duty to act in an emergency situation?
• How should you adjust choking relief for a pregnant or severely obese individual?
• Why should you close doors during a chemical spill if it is safe to do so?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of focusing on life-threatening conditions in the primary assessment?
• What is the primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) in an emergency response?
• What is the purpose of a tourniquet and when should you use one?
• Which elements must a comprehensive emergency communication plan include?
• Which statement about the Good Samaritan protection is true?
• What is the typical span of control range in ICS (Incident Command System)?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of unequal pupils?
• Under patient confidentiality, which circumstance gives you a right to disclose patient information?
• How often would you reassess a stable patient?
• What is a key difference in CPR technique for infants versus adults?
• What is the range for normal glucose levels?
• In an unresponsive medical patient, what is the recommended initial assessment action?
• What should you check and maintain regularly in a first aid kit?
• How should you respond to a chemical exposure while wearing PPE?
• What is the key technique for infant chest compressions in CPR?
• How is START triage conducted and what do the color tags indicate?
• Define errors of omission.
• Run-Hide-Fight guidelines for an active shooter scenario?
• In an incident, who is typically responsible for monitoring hazards and enforcing safety protocols?
• During PMS, which element evaluates the ability to actively move the limb?
• In the secondary assessment, which action is included within the physical examination?
• What safety precautions accompany the use of a backup generator during outages?
• In the SAMPLE acronym, which element corresponds to 'Last oral intake'?
• Which statement is true about the DCAP-BTLS acronym?
• How should you move through smoke if you must evacuate a building?
• What is the difference between an emergency drill and an exercise?
• What range is considered a high fever?
• A standard operating procedure (SOP) in emergency procedures is best described as?
• What is the standard chest compression depth for an adult during CPR?
• How do you recognize a cardiac arrest requiring CPR?
• Which scenario best illustrates an reassessment interval of 15 minutes for a stable patient?
• Which law protects persons acting in an emergency situation from a tort suit in Texas?
• What is the primary factor ensuring protection under the Good Samaritan Law?
• What should responders routinely do to ensure readiness for emergencies?
• Which of the following is NOT required to prove negligence?
• In a fire scenario, what is the first action you should take if you discover a fire and it is safe to do so?
• Which of the following is an element of abandonment?
• What is step 1 of your initial assessment?
• Which zone is the safe and decontaminated area in a hazardous materials incident?
• How should an assembly point be chosen and communicated?
• MOI may determine the _______ and/or ______ of an assessment.
• How should large-scale incidents requiring multiple agencies be coordinated?
• What is the purpose of an emergency notification and how should it be used?
• In a scenario where you receive an emergency notification and cannot evacuate immediately, what is the recommended action?
• What does FAST stand for in stroke recognition, and why is time critical?
• Assault is defined as?
• During decontamination, what is the primary goal?
• How do you use an AED on a person in cardiac arrest?
• What are the two classifications of patients in an emergency?
• A patient who is hot and moist may be suffering from which condition?
• In the described secondary assessment steps, which task is performed first?
• If you are trapped by fire, what steps should you take to increase your safety?
• During a neurological assessment, which functions are typically checked?
• If a person is not breathing but has a pulse, what is the CPR approach?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of dilated pupils?
• In civil law, malpractice is categorized as a tort, which means:
• Decontamination in emergency response involves?
• Define errors of commission.
• Which element is included in a detailed trauma survey but not typically in a rapid trauma survey?
• Which posture is associated with a severe brain injury and is considered worse?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps for the secondary assessment of a conscious trauma patient?
• A patient with a palpable radial pulse has a baseline diastolic pressure of which value?
• Malpractice is considered a ______ offense in a court of law?
• Why are regular emergency drills important?
• Which action is NOT part of the listed steps for the secondary assessment of a conscious trauma patient?
• During a primary assessment, if a patient's face is very red, what action should you take?
• In loco parentis means?
• During the primary assessment, a patient who is cold and moist is described as having which condition described in the material?
• Where should you gather after an evacuation?
• Which nonverbal signals can indicate distress during emergencies?
• If a patient presents pale with blue coloration around the lips during primary assessment, what should you do?
• What is the first step in the patient assessment process?
• What does RACE stand for in fire emergency procedures?
• Which option is NOT part of DOTS?
• Expressed vs implied consent. Which statement is true?
• During the primary assessment, a patient who is cold and dry may be suffering from which condition?
• What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for?
• Shelter-in-place is typically used during which scenario?
• Who typically has overall responsibility for incident objectives and strategy at the scene?
• Which of the following is one of the four elements required to establish a tort action?
• If you experience exposure to hazardous chemicals, whom should you notify?
• In a hazardous materials spill, what is the first action workers should take if safe to do so?
• What is decontamination and why is it necessary in a hazardous materials incident?
• Which ROM test involves the examiner moving the joint passively to assess range of motion?
• What is the first step to protect yourself when responding to a hazmat spill?
• Secondary assessment is performed when?
• For a child, which fall characteristics are considered a significant MOI?
• What are the four steps of the PASS method?
• What does PMS stand for in extremity assessment?
• During the primary assessment, a patient who is cool and clammy is most likely experiencing which condition?
• Which fall characteristics constitute a significant mechanism of injury for an adult?
• When is it advisable to stay low during a fire?
• What is the purpose of the initial assessment?
• Which group is at risk for false readings when using pulse oximetry?
• Which option correctly defines battery?
• In a chaotic scene, what should be the first action?
• Which best describes standard of care?
• Which ROM test requires the patient to actively move the joint?
• Which action best supports maintaining situational awareness during an emergency?
• Malice is defined as
• In hazardous environments, which statement accurately describes hot and cold zones?
• If you cannot run or hide during an active shooter event, what action is recommended?
• Which of the following is a component of the DCAP-BTLS framework?
• What is the primary aim of a detailed trauma survey?
• Which statement best describes the general impression at the scene?
• In START triage, which criterion is assessed to determine immediate treatment priority?
• What are essential safety steps during a power outage in the workplace?
• Before delivering a shock with an AED, what must you ensure?
• How often would you reassess an unstable patient?
• What are the 3 B's of first aid?
• Why is it important to account for all personnel at the assembly point after an evacuation?
• Battery is defined as?
• If a patient has ONLY a palpable carotid pulse, what does that mean their baseline diastolic pressure is?
• If you are not trained to respond to a chemical spill, what should you do?
• How should you control external bleeding?
• The acronym AVPU stands for what in determining a patient's mental status?
• Which class explanations match fire extinguisher classes A, B, and C?
• What is the role of the Incident Command System (ICS) in an emergency?
• What does MOI stand for?
• How would you change the steps of your assessment depending on a responsive medical patient versus an unresponsive medical patient?
• Which of the following is NOT a determinant of violence?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of unequal pupils?
• What is the primary purpose of PPE in emergencies?
• Under the Good Samaritan Law, which scenario would NOT be protected?
• Which of the following is NOT a method to evaluate blood pressure?
• Which term describes a civil wrong that can lead to a lawsuit for damages?
• Which of the following describes auscultatory BP measurement?
• What level is considered hyperglycemia?
• What describes the difference between scope of practice and standard of care?
• Which statement best describes the primary assessment?
• Which action is appropriate under standard precautions?
• Which modality is included in the secondary assessment's 'physical exam' step?
• If a patient has a palpable femoral pulse and NOT a palpable radial pulse, what does that mean their baseline diastolic pressure is?
• Near-miss incidents should be documented and addressed how?
• Which ROM test uses resisted movements to test strength?
• Under what conditions is it safe to re-enter a building after a hazardous event?
• What does the acronym DCAP-BTLS stand for?
• A patient who is hot and dry may be suffering from which condition?
• What is the key concept when moving from a primary assessment to a secondary assessment?
• A patient with a palpable radial pulse has a baseline diastolic pressure of which value?
• Which statement best describes tortious interference?
• Which statement best explains why time is critical in recognizing a stroke?
• What is the recommended practice for using a generator during a power outage?
• What is the other name for a Rapid Trauma Survey?
• Which statement best describes medical patients?
• Implied consent is applicable when the patient is unconscious and consent is assumed unless there is a DNR.
• Which check specifically assesses ligamentous stability during a patient assessment?
• What is the primary role of a safety officer during an incident?
• Where should Safety Data Sheets (SDS) be located and what information do they provide?
• 'Rate, rhythm, and quality' are words important in identifying what vitals as being regular or irregular?
• Name the five major functions of ICS.
• In an emergency, what does the 'duty to act' require?
• What is the recommended compression depth and rate for adult CPR?
• Which transport decision is used for unstable patients?
• Shelter-in-place means staying indoors and is used during which scenario?
• What do you form from your primary or initial assessment of the scene?
• What does the PASS acronym stand for, and what is it used to operate?
• Under the Incident Command System, which major function involves preparing for future needs and tracking resources?
• What is Slander?
• When may it be safe to re-enter a building after evacuation?
• Which scenario constitutes tortious interference with a business relationship?
• What does DOTS stand for in patient assessment?
• Which element is specifically listed as part of the physical examination during the secondary assessment?
• What is the primary purpose of Body Substance Isolation (BSI) in scene safety?
• A court of law will consider a procedure not done if it is not ______.
• Which posture indicates a lesion between the brain and spinal cord?
• Which of the following is a method to evaluate blood pressure?
• What is Libel?
• One definition of gross negligence in terms of an act of omission is
• Which statement correctly matches Stay & Play and Load & Go with patient stability?
• You would perform a rapid trauma assessment in what situations?